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1 / 52

What word can be placed in the brackets so that it forms another word or phrase when tacked on to the end of the first word, and another word or phrase when placed in front of the second word? SAND ( ) WORK

a) BOARD

b) CAST

c) PAPER

d) WITCH

e) STONE

2 / 52

What is 0.716 rounded to the nearest tenth?

a) 0.72

b) 0.7

c) 0.8

d) 1

3 / 52

The following pictures represent the food and beverage items a busy fast food restaurant in Tokyo sold in 30 minutes. Each picture stands for 12 sold items. ice cream- 3, fries- 4, burgers- 6, drinks- 3, hotdogs- 4. How many ice creams were sold compared to burgers?

a) 1 sold items

b) 2 sold items

c) 3 sold items

d) 4 sold items

4 / 52

City X is north of City Y and northeast of City W. City Y is north of City Z and west of City A. City B is east of City A. Which city is northwest of City Z?

a) City W

b) City X

c) City A

d) City B

5 / 52

Mister Clockhouse has a small but lovely organic apple orchard. The following picture graph shows the number of apples that he harvested during a couple of years. Each picture stand for 1 apple. How many apples were harvested in 2010?

a) 3

b) 6

c) 9

d) 12

6 / 52

Melodious is to harsh as pleasant is to ?

a) Unpleasant

b) Beautiful

c) Noisy

d) nose

7 / 52

Alex wants to buy a pizza. He is currently waiting in line at Pizza Palace. Alex thinks, "Pizza Palace always takes 25 minutes to bake my favourite pizza. But Crispy Crust, just down the block, always takes 30 minutes. It takes less than five minutes to walk there – so I should head to Crispy Crust and then I’ll get my pizza sooner." Which sentence below shows that Alex has made a mistake?

a) Pizza Palace higher quality

b) Fashion Haven better reviews

c) Sweet Treats Bakery more

d) Tech World longer wait time

8 / 52

Rachel spun a wheel and it landed on yellow. She spun it again and it landed on blue. What is the probability it will land on green on her third spin?

a) It is certain it will land on green.

b) It is most probable it will land on green.

c) The chance it lands on green is 1 in 3.

d) The chance it lands on green is 1 in 4.

9 / 52

We asked a group of 240 people about their favorite ice cream flavour. The bar graph
shows the flavours in percentages . Use the information to answer the question. How many respondents did not choose vanilla as their favorite flavor?

a) 180

b) 204

c) 210

d) 220

10 / 52

What is the better buy? 2 pair of socks for $6 or 100 pair of socks for $200

a) 5 phones for $200

b) 12 phones for $500

c) 2 pair of socks for $6

d) 100 pair of socks for $200

11 / 52

If O is the middle letter, how many letters are there before it?

a) 13

b) 12

c) 11

d) 14

e) 15

12 / 52

The band One Day Fly came out with a new record. The following line graph shows the number of albums th band sold the last couple of months. Use the information to answer the questions. If the sales in September doubled, what would be the new total for September?

a) 100

b) 125

c) 150

d) 150

13 / 52

Use the alphabet series A to Z as a guide to decode and find the answer to each question. Example: If the code for PIG is NJE, what is DVL the code for? (a) FKM (b) AVE (c) BZK (d) FCL (e) HNM

a) FKM

b) AVE

c) BZK

d) FCL

e) HNM

14 / 52

In a small country called ‘Holland’ the people love to get around on their bicycles. The following pictures represent the number of bicycles in this country. Each picture stands for 2 bicycles. How many more scooters are there compared to bicycles?

a) 8

b) 10

c) 20

d) 14

15 / 52

Some people argue that retribution is the purpose of
punishment of a person convicted of a crime, and
that therefore the punishment must in some direct
way fit the crime. Another view, the deterrence theory,
promotes punishment in order to discourage
commission of future crimes. In this view, punishment
need not relate directly to the crime committed.
However, punishment must necessarily be
uniform and consistently applied, in order for the
members of the public to understand how they
would be punished if they committed a crime. According to the passage, what would a person who believes in the deterrence theory likely support?

a) allowing television broadcasts of court proceedings.

b) non-unanimous jury verdicts.

c) early release of prisoners because of prison overcrowding.

d) a broad definition of the insanity defense.

16 / 52

In a Book Store, a Book costs $2.99 , a Cassette costs $1.25, and a CD costs $2.50. How much would it cost for 3 books?

a) $8.97

b) $9.99

c) $7.50

d) $6.99

17 / 52

After school, Mia likes to visit her favourite juice stand to buy a drink. The stand sells four types of juice, which are available on different days. Mia does not like apple or lemon juice, but she will visit the stand if she can buy a drink that she likes. If today is Sunday, which juice can Mia buy?

a) Apple juice

b) Orange juice

c) Grape juice

d) Lemon juice

18 / 52

A farmer harvests his potato crop once a year. The following line graph shows the
tonnes of potato he harvested per year. Use the information to answer the questions. How much did the farmer earn on potatoes in 2013 if he gets $0.65 per kilogram?

a) $7,500

b) $9,750

c) $10,000

d) $9,750

19 / 52

How long is needed to produce 9,000 cars? A factory can produce 200 cars per day.

a) 30 days

b) 40 days

c) 45 days

d) 50 days

20 / 52

A library is open from 10:00 am to 6:00 pm every day. Each librarian works for 7 hours with a 45-minute lunch break but no other breaks. There are two librarians working in the library. What is the maximum number of books that can be checked out from the library in a day?

a) 180

b) 210

c) 240

d) 270

21 / 52

In a beautiful country called ‘Down Under’ you can find a lot of strange animals such as the kangaroo. The following pictures represent the population of ‘roos’ in this country. Each picture represents 4 million animals. How many female roos are there?

a) 7

b) 8

c) 15

d) 32 million animals

22 / 52

Whenever Jack tosses a fair coin, which of the following statements are correct? If the coin lands on heads, then the probability of getting heads again in the next toss is 0.5.

a) True

b) False

c) Can't say

d) Depends on toss

23 / 52

If the code for CHAIR is KRDLS, what is SOFA the code for?

a) SOAF

b) SAOF

c) SFOA

d) SAFO

e) SOFA

24 / 52

The table shows the cost of dry-cleaning clothes. How much would it cost to dry clean 1 skirt, 2 blouses, and 1 coat?

a) $10.95

b) $8.95

c) $9.95

d) $7.95

25 / 52

Every year the forest rangers in the jungles of India count the number of wild elephants in their park and put their findings in a line graph. Use the information to answer the question. How many more elephants were counted in 2012 than in 2014?

a) 0

b) 10

c) 20

d) 30

26 / 52

Which of the following contains fiber?

a) raspberries

b) chicken breast

c) steak

d) butter

27 / 52

The following picture graph shows the total savings of a group of kids in 2022. Each picture stands for a saving of $1. The survey represents their answers. Peter: 5, Maria: 7, Mike: 4, John: 5, Ronny: 3. How many more dollars do Maria and John have together compared to Mike and Ronny together?

a) 3

b) 6

c) 5

d) 4

28 / 52

The price of Adidis shares fluctuates a lot. The following graph shows the
price per Adidis share per day. Use the information to answer the question. What was the ratio of the price per share on Tuesday to that on Thursday?

a) 1:02

b) 2:03

c) 3:07

d) 3:07

29 / 52

If Z is the last letter, how many letters are there in total?

a) 26

b) 24

c) 25

d) 27

e) 23

30 / 52

At a party, there are a total of 200 guests. One-fifth of the guests are children and the rest are adults. If one-third of the adults are vegetarians, how many vegetarians are at the party?

a) 30

b) 40

c) 53

d) 60

31 / 52

A clerk can process 26 forms per hour. If 5,600
forms must be processed in an 8-hour day, how
many clerks must you hire for that day?

a) 26 clerks

b) 24 clerks

c) 25 clerks

d) 27 clerks

32 / 52

A survey was done among a group of primary students about their favorite thing to do on a lazy Sunday. The survey represents their answers. Each student had to choose 1 favorite activity. Doing Nothing: 10, Going to Cinema: 9, Reading a Book: 6, Going to the Park: 3, Meeting Friends: 12. How many students do not prefer going to the park?

a) 20

b) 37

c) 18

d) 16

33 / 52

You navigate the world with a calm demeanor, rarely ruffled by the emotional storms that sweep through others. While your friends and colleagues might get excited, frustrated, or heartbroken by various events, you tend to maintain a neutral perspective. This week highlights your even-keeled nature in a situation. Your team scores a last-minute victory in a crucial game. Your coworkers erupt in cheers, hugging and high-fiving each other. You offer a smile and congratulations, happy for the win but not swept up in the emotional frenzy. How often do you find yourself remaining calm and collected when others are experiencing strong emotions? Do you struggle to connect with others on an emotional level, or do you simply express your emotions in a more muted way?

a) I'm highly empathetic and easily swayed by the emotions of others. I frequently mirror their feelings.

b) I might not show it outwardly, but I do feel emotions similar to what others experience.

c) I can understand and acknowledge the emotions of others, but I express them less intensely.

d) I don't react much to events that trigger strong emotions in others. I prioritize logic and reason over emotional responses. This can sometimes be perceived as coldness, but it's simply my natural way of processing the world.

34 / 52

Which of the following are examples of plastic deformation?

a) a car crash

b) squeezing a ball of silly putty

c) crushing a soft drink can

d) all of the above

35 / 52

The following line graph shows the rental price of a jet ski per hour.
Use the information to answer the questions. How much will it cost you to rent a jet ski for half an hour?

a) 15 dollars

b) 22.50 dollars

c) 30 dollars

d) 37.50 dollars

36 / 52

You prioritize the comfort and satisfaction of others, readily adjusting your own plans and desires to accommodate their wishes. This can be a valuable trait, but it can also lead to resentment and a sense of losing yourself in the process of pleasing everyone. This week highlights your people-pleasing tendencies in a situation. It's movie night with your family. Your parents suggest a classic film they haven't seen in years, while your siblings push for a new action movie. Despite secretly wanting to watch a comedy, you readily agree to the classic film, eager to make everyone happy, even if it means sacrificing your personal preference. How often do you find yourself prioritizing the desires of others, even if it means sacrificing your own preferences or needs? Do you have healthy boundaries and feel comfortable expressing your own wishes, or do you struggle to say no and end up feeling resentful?

a) I prioritize my own needs and desires and feel comfortable expressing them. I collaborate with others to find mutually agreeable solutions.

b) I might go along with someone else's plan occasionally, but I can also voice my own preferences and negotiate compromises.

c) I often prioritize the wishes of others and struggle to say no. I'm working on establishing healthy boundaries and expressing my own needs more assertively.

d) I consistently put the needs of others before my own, even when it makes me unhappy. This can lead to resentment and a feeling of inauthenticity. I need to learn to prioritize my own well-being and communicate my needs effectively.

37 / 52

Find the value of ?

a) 9

b) 8

c) 7

d) 9

38 / 52

The table shows the number of goals scored by four players in a soccer tournament. Jack scored 5 goals, Sarah scored 8 goals, Mike?, and Emily scored 7 goals. If the total number of goals scored by all players is 50, what percentage of the goals were scored by Mike?

a) 60%

b) 15%

c) 20%

d) 25%

39 / 52

What does "oblivious" most nearly mean?

a) ignorant

b) visible

c) sinister

d) aware

40 / 52

Solve 12(84 - 5) - (3 × 54) =

a) 796

b) 54,000

c) 841

d) 786

41 / 52

If the code for MUSIC is NRXAL, what is SONG the code for?

a) SNGO

b) SNGO

c) SOAG

d) SNAG

e) SOGN

42 / 52

You struggle to maintain focus, with even minor distractions pulling you away from your tasks. This can make it difficult to complete projects efficiently and can lead to feelings of frustration and inefficiency. This week highlights your focus challenges in a situation. Determined to finish your research paper, you settle into the library with all your notes and resources. However, a notification pops up on your phone. Intrigued, you check your social media and get sucked into a scrolling vortex. Hours later, you realize you've made minimal progress on the paper, sidetracked by a series of unimportant online distractions. How often do you find yourself getting sidetracked by minor distractions, hindering your ability to focus on tasks? Are you able to develop strategies to stay on track, or do you frequently get pulled off course by irrelevant stimuli?

a) I excel at maintaining focus and rarely get distracted, even in noisy or stimulating environments.

b) I might occasionally get distracted by something interesting, but I can usually refocus quickly.

c) I struggle with distractions sometimes, but I use techniques like time management and putting my phone away to stay on track.

d) I'm easily pulled off task by even minor distractions. This can make it challenging to complete tasks efficiently. I'm actively working on developing strategies to improve my focus and minimize distractions.

43 / 52

Find the ODD one in the group

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

e) E

44 / 52

How long will it take me to write a 500 words essay? I can type 4 words per minute.

a) 125 minutes

b) 100 minutes

c) 150 minutes

d) 200 minutes

45 / 52

Identify the right letter/s in place of the question mark in the following questions: E G J K O Q ? (a) S (b) R (c) U (d) V (e) T

a) S

b) R

c) U

d) V

e) T

46 / 52

Emily is 8 years older than her brother Jack. Jack was 28 years old when their daughter Lily was born. If Lily is now 5 years old, how old is her mother Emily?

a) 35

b) 41

c) 37

d) 38

47 / 52

The perimeter of the triangle is 28 centimeters. The lengths of two of the sides are 6 cm and 12 cm. What is the length of the third side?

a) 10 centimeters

b) 18 centimeters

c) 36 centimeters

d) 46 centimeters

48 / 52

For a math assignment a group of students had to draw their favorite shaps. The following pictures represent their choices. How many more triangles were drawn compared to hexagons?

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

49 / 52

A 15 cc dosage must be increased by 20%. What is the new dosage?

a) 17 cc

b) 18 cc

c) 30 cc

d) 35 cc

50 / 52

The teacher asked the students about their favorite pets. The following pictures show which pet each student liked the most. The picture shows: birds - 3, cats - 4, dogs - 3, fish - 4, rabbits - 6. How many more students like dogs than birds?

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

51 / 52

Which of these comes next in the pattern sequence?

a) A

b) B

c) C

52 / 52

Divide the alphabet into two halves (11 letters each). What is the first letter in the second half?

a) M

b) A

c) B

d) C

e) D

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What is the RAF DAA Test?

The RAF DAA test, previously known as AST, stands as a pivotal evaluation for individuals aspiring to join the Royal Air Force (RAF). It comprehensively assesses candidates across various essential domains crucial for RAF careers.
The DAA comprises six distinct aptitude test sections, each designed to gauge different cognitive abilities:
-Verbal reasoning
-Numerical reasoning
-Problem-solving (work rate)
-Spatial reasoning
-Mechanical and technical comprehension
-Memory and retention capabilities
RAF aptitude tests not only determine eligibility for different trades within the RAF but also pinpoint strengths and areas needing improvement in skills like problem-solving, numerical proficiency, and memory retention.

Structure of the DAA Test

Conducted at an Armed Forces Career Office (AFCO) under the supervision of an RAF careers officer, the DAA test spans approximately 90 minutes and consists of six specific sections.

RAF DAA Aptitude Tests Overview

RAF DAA Verbal Reasoning Test
Involving 20 questions to be answered within 15 minutes, this test assesses your ability to comprehend and analyze short passages, followed by multiple-choice questions. Overview of NSRT Sections
Royal Navy Reasoning Test
This section evaluates abstract reasoning abilities through diagrammatic reasoning tasks, assessing your ability to discern patterns and relationships within visual sequences.
Royal Navy Verbal Ability Test
Assessing beyond grammar and spelling, this test measures your comprehension of vocabulary and the nuances of word relationships, often requiring you to complete sentences with appropriate word choices. Read our Strategy to Ace the Verbal Ability tests
Royal Navy Numeracy Test
This section gauges your numerical agility, testing skills in arithmetic, ratios, fractions, and basic algebra, crucial for swift and accurate calculations. Read our Strategy to Ace the Numeracy and Mathematical Tests.
Royal Navy Mechanical Comprehension Test
Focused on basic mechanical reasoning and physics principles, this test presents technical drawings and scenarios related to pulleys, gears, and other mechanical systems, assessing your understanding and problem-solving abilities.
RAF DAA Numerical Reasoning Test
This test is divided into two sections: basic arithmetic and data interpretation. The arithmetic section involves 12 questions to be completed in 4 minutes, testing fundamental math skills. The data interpretation segment comprises 15 questions in 11 minutes, assessing your ability to analyze tables and graphs. Read our Strategy to Ace the Numeracy and Mathematical Tests.
RAF DAA Work Rate Test
Focused on evaluating your speed in deciphering codes, this test presents 20 alternate codes within a 4-minute timeframe, requiring swift problem-solving skills.
RAF DAA Spatial Reasoning Test
This test evaluates your capacity to manipulate and understand shapes in space. It includes two subsections: 2D shapes (10 questions in 4 minutes) and 3D shape orientation (10 questions in 3 minutes). Read our Strategy to Ace the Spatial and Visual tests
RAF DAA Electrical Comprehension Test
Based on GCSE Physics knowledge, this section presents 21 questions assessing your grasp of electrical concepts such as circuits, switches, and batteries, to be completed in 11 minutes.
RAF DAA Mechanical Comprehension Test
Focusing on GCSE Physics-level mechanical principles like forces, motion, and energy, this test comprises 20 questions to be answered within 10 minutes.
RAF DAA Memory / Recollection Test
This section assesses memory through two parts: recalling the sequence of letters and remembering a sequence of grids with colored squares, presented via video.

What to Expect at the AFCO

When attending your assessment at an AFCO, adhere to RAF guidelines by dressing smartly—avoid casual wear like sportswear or jeans. Arriving early is advised to alleviate stress and ensure preparedness.

RAF Recruitment Process

The RAF DAA test is just one step in the comprehensive recruitment process, which includes:
-RAF Aptitude Test (DAA)
-Selection Interviews
-Health Assessment
-Fitness Test
-Pre-Recruit Training
-Acceptance
-Training
For further details on the RAF recruitment process, visit the official RAF website.

Top Tips to Excel in RAF Aptitude Tests

Practice Tests: Familiarize yourself with sample questions to acclimate to the format and pacing of the DAA test.
Refine Mental Math: Strengthen skills in areas like percentages, fractions, and data analysis, essential for numerical reasoning.
Timed Practice: Simulate test conditions to improve time management skills required for the time-sensitive DAA assessments.
Educated Guessing: If unsure, make an educated guess rather than leaving answers blank within the strict time constraints.
Follow Instructions: Carefully read and adhere to test instructions provided during the DAA, ensuring clarity and accuracy in responses.

Conclusion

Preparation and familiarity with the RAF DAA test are critical to achieving success in the RAF recruitment process. By honing your aptitude and test-taking skills, you can maximize your opportunities for a fulfilling career within the Royal Air Force.

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Ace the RAAF DAA Aptitude Tests

Access 50+ comprehensive practice tests from our 5500+ question Bank. Prepare with our Realistic online practice tests tailored for the military aptitude tests.

Join 10+ million users!

Why Choose Us?

#1 Aptitude Testing Platform

Real Practice Tests

Employer Specific Tests

Progress Tracking

The Test Publishers

Boost your confidence today.

READ OURSUCCESS STORIES &REVIEWS

Trusted by aspirants like You!

4.8

BASED ON 121 REVIEWS

Lindiwe K​, Capetown

Mike Edward​, Louisiana

Track your performance

Improve your score

Test your knowledge

Rise above the rest

Learn from mistakes

Practice makes perfect

What is the RAF DAA Test?

Structure of the DAA Test

RAF DAA Aptitude Tests Overview

What to Expect at the AFCO

RAF Recruitment Process

Top Tips to Excel in RAF Aptitude Tests

Conclusion

Here’s more proof why you should choose us:

Only from $349 29 (91% off SALE)

FREE $0

Sarah M, Sydney

James T, Birmingham

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Mike Edward, Louisiana